I don't quite know what to make of this:
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0924857920301643?via=ihub
No reason to believe they are not in earnest.
Chances of a bad test are unlikely.
Did the virus exist before and mutate in Wuhan? Or does it have a less lethal cousin?
I find it hard to believe - given the spikes in ICU demand and death rates - that it went hidden across the world for several months before Feb/March...?
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0924857920301643?via=ihub
The COVID-19 epidemic is believed to have started in late January 2020 in France. Here we report a case of a patient hospitalised in December 2019 in an intensive care unit in a hospital in the north of Paris for haemoptysis with no aetiological diagnosis. RT-PCR was performed retrospectively on the stored respiratory sample and confirmed the diagnosis of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) infection. Based on this result, it appears that the COVID-19 epidemic started much earlier in France.
No reason to believe they are not in earnest.
Chances of a bad test are unlikely.
Did the virus exist before and mutate in Wuhan? Or does it have a less lethal cousin?
I find it hard to believe - given the spikes in ICU demand and death rates - that it went hidden across the world for several months before Feb/March...?